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I am curious what others on this list think of this decision by the British legal system. It has far-reaching consequences not only for Jews but for all religions, since it seems to insist that a religion is defined by individual belief (a Protestant criterion), not the religious community. http://www.nytimes.com/2009/11/08/world/europe/08britain.html The issue may not be how liberal one might wish the Orthodox definition ought to be, but rather who gets to decide -- and by which criteria -- what that definition legally, and thus officially is. Those who might be more familiar with this case than the NY Times article presents, or know of differing or better informed accounts, please do let us know. Thanks. Dan Lusthaus Harvard University -- Yocheved Menashe List Editor, H-Antisemitism
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